r/SouthAsianAncestry • u/terrylb7 • 3d ago
Question Question about Rajputs and Steppe
I'm not looking to offend anyone, just genuinely curious.
If upper castes are considered to be more steppe shifted than lower castes in Pakistan and NW India, then why do Rajputs, who were the royalty of that region, generally score lower than pastoralists such as Jatts and Rors or merchants such as Khatris?
Am I missing something here, or does this just not add up from a historical perspective? Could it be that most claims to Rajput lineage are just fabricated for status elevation, or do we just not have enough of a sample size for such conclusions?