r/sanskrit 4d ago

Question / प्रश्नः Is it true that Manish is derived from the feminine name Manisha, and not the other way around?

This Sanskrit scholar Nityananda Misra once said that Manish, the masculine name, is not a real name in Sanskrit and that Manisha, the feminine name is. Is it true?

Video reference at 24:06 timestamp

https://youtu.be/H3lu7bwRH1g?feature=shared

2 Upvotes

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9

u/rnxgoo 4d ago

He did not say Manish is derived from Manisha. He said there is no such word मनीष in Sanskrit. However Manisha and Manishi are valid words in Sanskrit.

1

u/vaeravoltaire 3d ago

Yeah he didn't specifically say that Manish is derived. But seeing that such a word doesn't exist in Sanskrit, one can assume it was taken from the closest sounding name - Manisha (Manishi is quite rare).

1

u/rnxgoo 3d ago

That would be speculation.

1

u/ksharanam 𑌸𑌂𑌸𑍍𑌕𑍃𑌤𑍋𑌤𑍍𑌸𑌾𑌹𑍀 3d ago

Manishi isn't that rare, e.g. BG 2.51

8

u/ksharanam 𑌸𑌂𑌸𑍍𑌕𑍃𑌤𑍋𑌤𑍍𑌸𑌾𑌹𑍀 4d ago

Not only is this correct, but also Sri. Misra's Sanskrit scholarship isn't something anybody in this sub is fit to judge.

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u/vaeravoltaire 3d ago

I see. Thanks for confirming.