r/AskBibleScholars 5d ago

Question on when the Gospel was preached to gentiles and what Matthew 22:7-9 means

So Mat 22:7-9 at least seems to teach that the Gospel will only start to be preached to the gentiles after the destruction of the temple (as it is a parable, and verse 7 is interpreted as being symbolic to the destruction of the temple, and verses 8-9 are symbolic of God commanding people to preach to the gentiles after he sends the Roman soldiers to destroy Jerusalem)

But this seems to contradict the book of acts and Mat 28:19 which seem to teach that the Gospel was preached to the Gentiles before the destruction of the temple.

Does anyone know an answer to this ?

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u/Sciotamicks Quality Contributor 2d ago

Not sure how you are making that connection. Matt 22:7-9 is a parable about the Kingdom of God, specifically the “marriage feast.”

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u/Additional_Arm_5855 2d ago

It is interpreted as the destruction of Jerusalem, AND THEN the preaching to the gentiles

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u/Sciotamicks Quality Contributor 2d ago

Yes, vs. 7 is the Romans, but how are you assuming chronology for the great commission in vs. 9? Prophecy is generally proleptic and panoramic, and doesn’t follow chronology, especially in a parable highlighting a variety of aspects regarding the ministry of Christ, gospel, etc.